For some reason—boredom? coincidence? hot weather peevishness?—a bunch of bloggers today have been arguing about whether Republican control of the House is due to gerrymandering. I don’t get this. Gerrymandering is what it is. The best studies I’ve seen suggest that it accounts for 6-8 additional Republican seats. The rest of the Republican advantage is due to the incumbency effect; self-sorting; natural Democratic clumping in urban areas; and a few other minor things.
So: Is gerrymandering responsible for Republican control of the House? No. Is it partially responsible? Yes. What’s so hard about this?